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NEW QUESTION # 85
Which risk may be faced by users when using software resources in the platform as a service (PaaS) cloud model?
- A. Information bleed
- B. Web application security
- C. Guest escape
- D. Software interoperability
Answer: A
Explanation:
Information bleed is a risk associated with the Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud model. Managing Cloud principles explain that PaaS environments are inherently multi-tenant, with multiple customers sharing the same underlying platform components such as runtimes, databases, and middleware.
If isolation controls are weak or misconfigured, data from one tenant may inadvertently become accessible to another. This unintended exposure is referred to as information bleed and represents a significant confidentiality risk in shared environments.
Guest escape is primarily related to virtualization at the infrastructure layer, software interoperability is a functional concern, and web application security applies across all service models. Therefore, information bleed is the most relevant PaaS-specific risk.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which open-source software (OSS) cloud computing platform provides a full set of features and components for a cloud environment?
- A. VMware vSphere
- B. Apache OpenStack
- C. Open Web Application Security Project
- D. Hypervisor
Answer: B
Explanation:
Apache OpenStack is an open-source cloud computing platform that provides a comprehensive set of features and components for building and managing cloud environments. Managing Cloud principles explain that OpenStack supports compute, storage, networking, identity, and orchestration services.
It enables organizations to deploy private and hybrid clouds with full control over infrastructure and security configurations. The modular architecture allows flexibility and scalability.
The other options are not full cloud platforms. A hypervisor provides virtualization, VMware vSphere is proprietary, and OWASP focuses on application security guidance. Therefore, Apache OpenStack is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which aspect of strong authentication is part of enterprise risk management?
- A. Distributed organizations
- B. Federated identities
- C. Privileged user management
- D. Entitlement consideration
Answer: C
Explanation:
Privileged user management is a critical aspect of strong authentication within enterprise risk management.
Managing Cloud guidance explains that privileged accounts have elevated access to systems, data, and configurations, making them high-value targets for attackers.
Enterprise risk management requires identifying, protecting, and monitoring these accounts through strong authentication mechanisms such as multi-factor authentication, session monitoring, and just-in-time access.
Controlling privileged access reduces the risk of insider threats, credential compromise, and unauthorized system changes.
Federated identities support access integration, entitlement consideration relates to authorization, and distributed organizations describe structure rather than authentication strength. Therefore, privileged user management is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which legal framework is concerned with the privacy of data of EU/EEA citizens?
- A. APPI
- B. GDPR
- C. HIPAA
- D. COPPA
Answer: B
Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the legal framework concerned with the privacy of data belonging to citizens of the European Union and the European Economic Area (EU/EEA). Managing Cloud principles explain that GDPR establishes comprehensive rules governing the collection, processing, storage, and transfer of personal data.
GDPR applies to organizations both within and outside the EU/EEA if they process personal data of EU residents. It enforces strict requirements related to data protection, consent, breach notification, and individual rights. Cloud service providers and consumers must ensure compliance when handling EU personal data.
The other options apply to different jurisdictions or data types. HIPAA governs healthcare data in the United States, COPPA protects children's online privacy in the U.S., and APPI applies to Japan. Therefore, GDPR is the correct framework.
NEW QUESTION # 89
An organization consists of many divisions. Its leadership team has gathered the managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. It studies the type of natural events that commonly occur and the risk involved for each location in which the organization has a data center. What is the leadership team doing in this scenario?
- A. Running a disaster declaration process
- B. Performing an asset inventory
- C. Identifying the actions
- D. Defining the disaster criteria
Answer: D
Explanation:
By analyzing natural events that could impact data centers and assessing the risks associated with each, the leadership team isdefining the disaster criteria. This step determines what conditions or events qualify as disasters requiring activation of the recovery plan.
An asset inventory identifies systems, but here the focus is on external events. A disaster declaration process occurs during an actual event, and identifying actions comes later when response strategies are created.
Defining disaster criteria is essential to avoid ambiguity during crises. It establishes thresholds such as
"category 4 hurricanes," "regional power outages exceeding 12 hours," or "seismic events over a set magnitude." Clear criteria ensure consistent decision-making and timely activation of recovery procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which cloud model allows an on-premises data center to use cloud bursting?
- A. Hybrid
- B. Public
- C. Private
- D. Community
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Hybrid cloud model allows an on-premises data center to use cloud bursting. Managing Cloud principles explain that cloud bursting enables organizations to handle spikes in workload demand by temporarily using public cloud resources while maintaining normal operations on private, on-premises infrastructure.
In a hybrid model, private and public cloud environments are integrated, allowing workloads to move seamlessly between them. When on-premises capacity is exceeded, additional processing power or storage is obtained from the public cloud and released once demand returns to normal. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost efficiency without requiring permanent over-provisioning of on-premises resources.
Public, private, and community clouds do not independently support cloud bursting from on-premises environments without hybrid integration. Therefore, the hybrid cloud model is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A breach caused by lack of security management resulted in a civil lawsuit. The organization must communicate with the entity that is responsible for performing adequate oversight. Who should be contacted?
- A. Cloud customer
- B. IT department
- C. Board of director members
- D. High-level government agencies
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the event of a civil lawsuit resulting from inadequate security management, the organization must communicate with the board of directors. Managing Cloud guidance explains that the board of directors holds ultimate responsibility for governance, oversight, and risk management within an organization.
The board ensures that appropriate policies, controls, and management structures are in place to protect organizational assets and comply with legal obligations. In legal matters, the board must be informed to oversee response strategies, legal counsel engagement, and corrective actions.
The IT department manages technical controls but does not provide organizational oversight. High-level government agencies are regulators, not internal oversight bodies. Therefore, board members are the correct entity to contact.
NEW QUESTION # 92
In which cloud service model is the cloud consumer responsible for installation and maintenance of the operating system?
- A. Network as a Service (NaaS)
- B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
- D. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, the cloud consumer is responsible for installing and maintaining the operating system. Managing Cloud principles describe that IaaS provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking, while leaving system-level management to the customer.
Customers must install operating systems, apply patches, configure security settings, and manage applications running on the infrastructure. This responsibility provides flexibility but also requires strong operational and security controls.
In PaaS and SaaS, the provider manages the operating system. NaaS focuses on network services rather than OS management. Therefore, IaaS is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider's role in the chain of custody?
- A. Collecting and preserving digital evidence
- B. Classifying and analyzing data
- C. Setting data backup and recovery policies
- D. Initiating and executing incident response
Answer: A
Explanation:
In cloud environments, the provider's role in thechain of custodyprimarily involvescollecting and preserving digital evidencewhen incidents or investigations occur. Because providers manage the infrastructure, they have direct access to logs, storage systems, and virtual machines necessary for evidence collection.
Backup policies and incident response may involve collaboration, but they remain customer responsibilities in many service models. Data classification and analysis are business-driven tasks, which customers must handle.
Providers must ensure that evidence collection is forensically sound and documented properly to maintain legal admissibility. This responsibility is critical in maintaining trust and ensuring compliance with laws and contractual obligations. It reinforces the shared responsibility model by clearly defining which aspects of digital forensics belong to the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 94
An organization needs to provide space where security administrators can centrally monitor network traffic and events and respond to threats or outages. What should the organization create?
- A. Disaster response team (DRT)
- B. Security operations center (SOC)
- C. Emergency response team (ERT)
- D. Network operations center (NOC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
ASecurity Operations Center (SOC)is a centralized facility that allows administrators to monitor, detect, investigate, and respond to cybersecurity events in real time. SOC teams leverage tools such as SIEM (Security Information and Event Management), threat intelligence, and incident response playbooks.
ERTs and DRTs are teams focused on emergencies and disaster recovery, respectively, but they do not provide continuous monitoring. A NOC focuses on performance and availability of IT infrastructure but not on security threats.
By establishing a SOC, organizations ensure 24/7 visibility into security events, coordinated incident handling, and compliance with standards such as ISO 27001 and SOC 2. SOCs are essential in cloud environments where threats evolve rapidly, and centralized expertise is needed to minimize impact.
NEW QUESTION # 95
An organization creates a plan for long-term cloud storage of its backup data. What should the organization address to avoid losing access to its data?
- A. Regulatory compliance
- B. Change tracking
- C. Quantum computing
- D. Key management
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most critical concern in long-term cloud storage iskey management. If encryption keys are lost, corrupted, or improperly rotated, the organization will lose the ability to decrypt its own data, rendering backups unusable. This issue is particularly serious because cloud storage almost always relies on encryption to secure sensitive or regulated information.
While regulatory compliance, quantum threats, and change tracking are important, none directly prevent permanent data loss. The reliability of key management ensures that access to long-term archival data is preserved across changes in personnel, technology, and vendors.
Best practices include using centralized key management systems (such as Hardware Security Modules or cloud Key Management Services), applying role-based controls, and performing periodic key rotation and escrow. Addressing key management in the backup plan ensures that data will remain accessible for years or decades, regardless of technological shifts.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which section of a contract includes the customer's right to audit the vendor to verify whether the vendor is fulfilling its contractual obligations?
- A. Termination
- B. Assurance
- C. Indemnification
- D. Litigation
Answer: B
Explanation:
TheAssurancesection of a contract specifies the customer's rights to verify that the vendor is meeting contractual and compliance obligations. This often includes the right to audit, request independent certifications, or require compliance reports such as SOC 2 or ISO 27001.
Indemnification deals with liability coverage, termination outlines exit conditions, and litigation describes dispute resolution mechanisms. None of these provide the customer with ongoing oversight rights.
Audit rights are critical in cloud contracts to maintain transparency, enforce accountability, and verify that shared responsibility is being upheld. Assurance provisions give customers confidence in the provider's security and operational practices, ensuring compliance with industry regulations.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which phase of the software development life cycle includes creating user stories?
- A. Planning
- B. Designing
- C. Defining
- D. Developing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Planning phase of the software development life cycle (SDLC) includes creating user stories. Managing Cloud principles explain that user stories capture functional requirements from the end user's perspective and help define application behavior and priorities.
During planning, stakeholders collaborate to identify business needs, define scope, and establish development goals. User stories are used to guide development tasks and ensure alignment with customer expectations.
Designing focuses on architecture, developing involves coding, and defining establishes high-level objectives.
Therefore, planning is the correct SDLC phase for creating user stories.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which logical consideration should be addressed when planning the design of a data center?
- A. Utility power availability
- B. Heating and cooling
- C. Multitenancy of networks
- D. Ability for expansion
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multitenancy of networks is a logical design consideration when planning a data center. Managing Cloud principles explain that logical considerations focus on how systems, networks, and services are structured and interact, rather than physical infrastructure components.
Multitenancy requires logical separation of tenants to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data.
This includes network segmentation, virtual LANs, access controls, and isolation mechanisms that prevent one tenant from accessing another tenant's resources. Proper logical design is critical in cloud environments where multiple customers share the same physical infrastructure.
The other options represent non-logical considerations. Heating and cooling and utility power availability are physical and environmental concerns, while ability for expansion relates to physical capacity planning.
Therefore, multitenancy of networks is the correct logical consideration.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Which steps should an organization take to avoid risk when dealing with software licensing?
- A. It should ensure it has the correct type of license.
- B. It should ensure it only uses closed-source licenses.
- C. It should ensure it only uses open-source licenses.
- D. It should ensure it has the correct location to store licenses.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary safeguard against licensing risk is ensuring the organization has thecorrect type of license.
Software licenses define usage rights, limitations, and legal obligations. Using software outside of license terms can lead to legal penalties, financial fines, and reputational damage.
Location of licenses is a management issue, not a risk control. Restricting usage to closed-source or open- source alone is not practical, as both models require compliance with license agreements.
Correct licensing includes verifying user counts, subscription terms, geographic restrictions, and intended use.
It also involves monitoring for unauthorized installations and conducting regular audits. Proper license management ensures legal compliance, cost control, and operational continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which security concept requires continuous identity and authorization checks to allow access to data?
- A. Intrusion prevention
- B. Secret management
- C. Traffic inspection
- D. Zero trust
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheZero Trustsecurity model assumes that no user, device, or application should be trusted by default, whether inside or outside the network perimeter. Every access request must be continuously verified using strict identity, authorization, and context-based checks.
Unlike traditional perimeter security, Zero Trust emphasizes the principle of "never trust, always verify." Traffic inspection looks at data packets, intrusion prevention identifies malicious activity, and secret management safeguards sensitive keys and credentials. None of these approaches enforce constant, adaptive identity verification the way Zero Trust does.
By adopting Zero Trust, organizations ensure that access is not granted simply because a user is "inside" the network. Instead, continuous checks evaluate credentials, device posture, location, and other risk factors. This significantly reduces the risk of insider threats, credential theft, and lateral movement within cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which characteristic of cloud computing refers to sharing physical assets among multiple customers?
- A. Rapid scalability
- B. On-demand self-service
- C. Measured service
- D. Resource pooling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Resource pooling is one of the core characteristics of cloud computing defined by NIST. It refers to the provider's ability to serve multiple customers by dynamically allocating and reallocating computing resources such as storage, processing, memory, and network bandwidth. These resources are abstracted using virtualization, ensuring that customers remain isolated from one another even though they share the same physical assets.
Rapid scalability describes elasticity, on-demand self-service allows users to provision resources without provider intervention, and measured service refers to metering usage. None of these concepts directly describe the multi-tenant model of shared resources.
Resource pooling improves efficiency, reduces costs, and provides flexibility, but it also introduces new security considerations such as data isolation and hypervisor security. Customers must ensure that providers implement strong controls to prevent data leakage or cross-tenant compromise.
NEW QUESTION # 102
Which process is implemented during the hardening of an operating system (OS) and its workloads?
- A. Patch management
- B. Security management
- C. Change management
- D. Incident management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Patch management is a core process implemented during the hardening of an operating system and its workloads. Managing Cloud principles explain that OS hardening involves reducing vulnerabilities by applying security patches, updates, and fixes to eliminate known weaknesses.
Patch management ensures that operating systems, applications, and dependencies are kept up to date with vendor-released security patches. This process reduces the attack surface and prevents exploitation of known vulnerabilities. Effective patch management includes testing, deployment, verification, and ongoing monitoring.
Change management governs how changes are approved, incident management handles security events, and security management is a broader governance function. Therefore, patch management is the correct process associated with OS hardening.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Which term refers to taking an accurate account of a system's desired standard state so changes can be quickly detected for approval or remediation?
- A. Deployment
- B. Capacity management
- C. Patch management
- D. Baselining
Answer: D
Explanation:
Baselining is the process of establishing a reference point for the standard configuration of systems, networks, or applications. This baseline represents the approved, secure state. By continuously comparing the current environment to the baseline, organizations can detect deviations, unauthorized changes, or misconfigurations.
Patch management involves updating systems, deployment refers to installing new systems, and capacity management focuses on resource planning. While important, these do not establish a standard state for comparison.
Baselining is essential for change management and security auditing. It supports configuration management databases (CMDBs), intrusion detection, and compliance requirements. When deviations are detected, they can be escalated for remediation or formally approved through change control processes.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which methodology encompasses conducting tests around the interaction of end users with new code that is intended for a patch?
- A. Full testing
- B. Nonfunctional testing
- C. Tabletop testing
- D. Functional testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Functional testingvalidates that new or updated code performs correctly from the end user's perspective.
This type of testing ensures that the patch delivers intended results without introducing errors. It focuses on verifying user interactions, workflows, and outputs.
Full testing may cover all aspects, but it is broader than necessary. Nonfunctional testing evaluates performance, scalability, or usability, not direct functionality. Tabletop testing is a discussion-based exercise, often used for incident response.
Functional testing ensures customer satisfaction by aligning patches with expected system behavior. It is a core component of Agile and DevOps pipelines, where user experience and rapid delivery are prioritized.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which requirement for cross-border data transfer is part of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)?
- A. Demonstration of adequate level of protection similar to GDPR
- B. Formal consent of the data owner
- C. Acknowledgement of liability for protection by the entity receiving the data transfer
- D. Acceptance of liability for protection by the transferring entity
Answer: A
Explanation:
GDPR requires a demonstration of an adequate level of data protection equivalent to GDPR standards for cross-border data transfers. Managing Cloud guidance explains that personal data may only be transferred outside the EU/EEA if the receiving country or entity ensures appropriate safeguards.
These safeguards may include adequacy decisions, standard contractual clauses, or binding corporate rules.
The goal is to ensure that personal data continues to receive the same level of protection regardless of where it is processed.
Formal consent alone is insufficient, and liability is not transferred exclusively to one party. Therefore, demonstrating adequate protection is the correct requirement.
NEW QUESTION # 106
A network administrator is concerned about the loss of physical control when moving data to the cloud.
Which countermeasure should be implemented to avoid this threat?
- A. Tertiary control
- B. Ancillary control
- C. Compensating control
- D. Multi-layer control
Answer: C
Explanation:
A compensating control should be implemented to address the loss of physical control when moving data to the cloud. Managing Cloud guidance explains that compensating controls are alternative safeguards used when direct controls are not feasible.
Since customers cannot physically secure cloud data centers, compensating controls such as strong encryption, key management, access controls, and monitoring are used to mitigate the risk. These controls provide equivalent or greater protection despite the lack of physical access.
The other options are not recognized control types in cloud security governance. Therefore, compensating control is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 107
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