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PRMIA 8008 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Risk Management Frameworks | - Enterprise risk management principles
|
| Topic 2: Credit Risk | - Credit risk measurement and modeling
|
| Topic 3: Funds Transfer Pricing (FTP) | - FTP methodologies - Internal pricing of funds and liquidity allocation |
| Topic 4: Operational Risk | - Operational risk types and sources - Operational risk management techniques
|
| Topic 5: Asset-Liability Management (ALM) | - Liquidity risk management - Interest rate risk in the banking book (IRRBB) |
| Topic 6: Counterparty Risk | - Derivatives credit risk considerations - Netting and collateral management - Counterparty credit exposure |
| Topic 7: Market Risk | - Interest rate, equity, FX, and commodity risk - Market risk measurement techniques
|
PRMIA PRM Certification - Exam III: Risk Management Frameworks, Operational Risk, Credit Risk, Counterparty Risk, Market Risk, ALM, FTP - 2015 Edition Sample Questions:
Which of the following can be used to reduce credit exposures to a counterparty:
I. Netting arrangements
II. Collateral requirements
III. Offsetting trades with other counterparties
IV. Credit default swaps
- A. I, II and IV
- B. I and II
- C. I, II, III and IV
- D. III and IV
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for PrepAwayExam members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
Which of the following statements are true:
I. It is usual to set a very high confidence level when estimating VaR for capital requirements.
II. For model validation, very high VaR confidence levels are used to minimize excess losses.
III. For limit setting for managing day to day positions, it is usual to set VaR confidence levels that are neither too low to be exceeded too often, nor too high as to be never exceeded.
IV. The Basel accord requirements for market risk capital require the use of a time horizon of 1 year.
- A. II and III
- B. III and IV
- C. I and III
- D. I and IV
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for PrepAwayExam members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
Which of the following best describes Altman's Z-score
- A. A standardized z based upon the normal distribution
- B. A numerical computation based upon accounting ratios
- C. A regression of probability of survival against a given set of factors
- D. A calculation of default probabilities
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for PrepAwayExam members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
The frequency distribution for operational risk loss events can be modeled by which of the following distributions:
I. The binomial distribution
II. The Poisson distribution
III. The negative binomial distribution
IV. The omega distribution
- A. I, II, III and IV
- B. I and III
- C. I, III and IV
- D. I, II and III
Correct Answer: D 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for PrepAwayExam members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
As the persistence parameter under GARCH is lowered, which of the following would be true:
- A. The model will react slower to market shocks
- B. High variance from the recent past will persist for longer
- C. The model will react faster to market shocks
- D. The model will give lower weight to recent returns
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for PrepAwayExam members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
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